Mock Exam 7
VCE Biology Units 3 & 4 | Epigenetics and Environmental Influence on Gene Expression
✎ 120 marks total • approximately 150 minutes. Complete ALL questions on paper before opening the Model Answers lesson. Reading time: 15 minutes (recommended). No notes.
SECTION A — MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 marks)
Question 1 (1 mark)
Epigenetics is best defined as the study of:
✎ Circle your answer
A) heritable changes in gene expression that occur without changes to the underlying DNA nucleotide sequence
B) mutations in the DNA sequence that alter the amino acid sequence of proteins
C) the process by which mRNA is translated into a polypeptide chain
D) changes in chromosome number that occur during meiosis
Question 2 (1 mark)
In mammals, DNA methylation predominantly occurs on cytosine bases that are:
✎ Circle your answer
A) located within intron sequences only
B) immediately followed by a guanine base (CpG dinucleotides), often clustered in CpG islands near gene promoters
C) found exclusively in mitochondrial DNA
D) paired with adenine in the double helix
Question 3 (1 mark)
DNA methyltransferase (DNMT) enzymes function by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) unwinding the DNA double helix ahead of the replication fork
B) removing acetyl groups from histone tails
C) catalysing the addition of a methyl group to cytosine bases, typically silencing nearby gene expression
D) cleaving DNA at specific restriction sites
Question 4 (1 mark)
Increased methylation of a gene’s promoter region typically results in:
✎ Circle your answer
A) increased binding of RNA polymerase and enhanced transcription
B) alternative splicing of the pre-mRNA transcript
C) increased rate of DNA replication at that locus
D) transcriptional silencing, as methylation blocks transcription factor binding and recruits proteins that compact chromatin
Question 5 (1 mark)
Acetylation of histone tails by histone acetyltransferases (HATs) generally:
✎ Circle your answer
A) neutralises the positive charge on histones, loosening DNA-histone binding and promoting an open, transcriptionally active chromatin state (euchromatin)
B) adds a phosphate group that marks histones for degradation
C) increases condensation of chromatin into heterochromatin
D) has no effect on chromatin structure or gene expression
Question 6 (1 mark)
Histone deacetylase (HDAC) enzymes act to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) methylate CpG islands in gene promoters
B) remove acetyl groups from histone tails, restoring positive charge and promoting tighter DNA-histone association, generally repressing transcription
C) unwind supercoiled DNA during replication
D) degrade mRNA transcripts in the cytoplasm
Question 7 (1 mark)
Compared with euchromatin, heterochromatin is:
✎ Circle your answer
A) less condensed and associated with actively transcribed genes
B) found only in prokaryotic cells
C) highly condensed, generally transcriptionally inactive, and often associated with hypoacetylated, hypermethylated regions
D) composed entirely of RNA rather than DNA
Question 8 (1 mark)
ATP-dependent chromatin remodelling complexes regulate gene expression by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) synthesising new histone proteins
B) methylating DNA at CpG sites
C) degrading histone proteins entirely
D) using energy from ATP hydrolysis to reposition or restructure nucleosomes, altering DNA accessibility to transcription machinery
Question 9 (1 mark)
The ‘histone code’ hypothesis proposes that:
✎ Circle your answer
A) specific combinations of histone modifications (e.g. acetylation, methylation, phosphorylation) act together to determine chromatin state and gene expression outcomes
B) histones directly encode the amino acid sequence of proteins
C) only one type of histone modification can occur on a nucleosome at any time
D) histone modifications are randomly distributed and have no functional significance
Question 10 (1 mark)
In the agouti viable yellow (Avy) mouse model, coat colour variation among genetically identical littermates arises because:
✎ Circle your answer
A) each mouse carries a different DNA sequence at the Agouti locus
B) variable methylation of a retrotransposon inserted upstream of the Agouti gene alters its expression, producing a spectrum from yellow (unmethylated) to brown/pseudoagouti (methylated)
C) the mice have different chromosome numbers
D) coat colour is determined solely by maternal diet during weaning, not gestation
Question 11 (1 mark)
When pregnant agouti mice are fed a diet supplemented with methyl donors such as folate, vitamin B12 and choline, the offspring show:
✎ Circle your answer
A) increased incidence of yellow coat colour and obesity
B) no change in coat colour distribution
C) a shift towards more brown/mottled (pseudoagouti) coat colour due to increased methylation silencing the Agouti retrotransposon
D) complete loss of the Agouti gene
Question 12 (1 mark)
Maternal exposure to the endocrine-disrupting chemical bisphenol A (BPA) in agouti mice tends to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) increase methylation at the Agouti locus, producing more brown offspring
B) have no measurable epigenetic effect
C) delete the Agouti retrotransposon
D) decrease methylation at the Agouti locus, shifting offspring coat colour towards yellow and increasing obesity risk, an effect that can be counteracted by dietary genistein supplementation
Question 13 (1 mark)
Studies of individuals prenatally exposed to the Dutch Hunger Winter (1944-45) famine found that, decades later, these individuals showed:
✎ Circle your answer
A) altered methylation of genes such as IGF2, associated with increased risk of obesity, cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes in adulthood
B) no difference in disease risk compared with unexposed siblings
C) changes to their DNA nucleotide sequence at the IGF2 locus
D) complete reversal of all epigenetic marks by puberty
Question 14 (1 mark)
Transgenerational epigenetic inheritance refers to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) the direct inheritance of DNA mutations from parent to offspring
B) the transmission of epigenetic marks (and associated phenotypes) to generations that were never directly exposed to the original environmental trigger (e.g. F2/F3 generations)
C) the inheritance of chromosomal abnormalities such as trisomy
D) the process of X-chromosome crossing over during meiosis
Question 15 (1 mark)
Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon in which:
✎ Circle your answer
A) both copies of a gene are always expressed equally regardless of parental origin
B) genes are permanently mutated during gametogenesis
C) a gene is expressed (or silenced) depending on which parent it was inherited from, due to differential methylation established during gamete formation
D) genes are duplicated on both sex chromosomes
Question 16 (1 mark)
Prader-Willi syndrome typically results from:
✎ Circle your answer
A) triplication of maternal chromosome 21
B) a point mutation in a paternally inherited gene
C) loss of the maternal UBE3A allele on chromosome 15
D) loss of expression of paternally inherited genes in the chromosome 15q11-13 region (via deletion or maternal uniparental disomy), leaving only the imprinted (silenced) maternal copy
Question 17 (1 mark)
Angelman syndrome arises when:
✎ Circle your answer
A) the maternally inherited UBE3A gene on chromosome 15 is deleted or silenced, and the paternal copy is normally imprinted (silenced) in neurons, leaving no functional UBE3A expression
B) the paternal chromosome 15 is completely absent
C) methylation is entirely absent from both parental chromosome 15 copies
D) it is caused by a triplet repeat expansion, as in Huntington disease
Question 18 (1 mark)
In female mammals, random X-chromosome inactivation results in:
✎ Circle your answer
A) complete deletion of one X chromosome from the genome
B) one X chromosome in each cell becoming a condensed, transcriptionally silent Barr body, an epigenetic state maintained through subsequent mitotic divisions of that cell lineage
C) both X chromosomes remaining fully active in all somatic cells
D) inactivation always occurring on the paternally inherited X chromosome
Question 19 (1 mark)
The long non-coding RNA Xist contributes to X-inactivation by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) coding for a protein that degrades the inactive X chromosome
B) methylating autosomal genes
C) coating the X chromosome from which it is transcribed and recruiting silencing complexes that establish heterochromatin across that chromosome
D) preventing DNA replication of the active X chromosome
Question 20 (1 mark)
Studies of monozygotic (identical) twins, such as Fraga et al. (2005), found that:
✎ Circle your answer
A) twins show identical epigenetic profiles throughout life because they share identical DNA sequences
B) epigenetic differences between twins are present at birth and do not change with age
C) epigenetic marks are entirely determined by genotype and unaffected by environment
D) older twin pairs, and those with more divergent lifestyles/environments, show greater differences in DNA methylation and histone acetylation patterns than younger twin pairs
Question 21 (1 mark)
Monozygotic twin studies are valuable for epigenetic research primarily because:
✎ Circle your answer
A) since twins share identical DNA sequence, any phenotypic or molecular differences that emerge can be attributed to environmental influences on gene expression rather than genetic variation
B) monozygotic twins always have completely different genomes
C) they allow researchers to study Y chromosome inheritance
D) twins cannot be used to separate genetic from environmental effects
Question 22 (1 mark)
In many cancers, tumour suppressor genes (e.g. BRCA1, p16/CDKN2A) are frequently inactivated by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) deletion of the entire chromosome on which they are located
B) hypermethylation of CpG islands in their promoter regions, silencing transcription without altering the DNA sequence
C) increased histone acetylation at their promoters
D) alternative splicing that removes all exons
Question 23 (1 mark)
Global hypomethylation of the genome, commonly observed in cancer cells, is associated with:
✎ Circle your answer
A) increased silencing of oncogenes
B) more stable, tightly packed heterochromatin genome-wide
C) genomic instability and inappropriate activation of oncogenes and transposable elements
D) complete prevention of tumour formation
Question 24 (1 mark)
Azacitidine, used clinically to treat certain cancers such as myelodysplastic syndrome, works by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) directly cutting DNA at tumour suppressor gene loci
B) increasing global DNA methylation
C) inhibiting histone acetyltransferases
D) inhibiting DNA methyltransferase enzymes, reducing methylation and reactivating silenced tumour suppressor genes
Question 25 (1 mark)
Histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors are being explored as cancer treatments because they:
✎ Circle your answer
A) increase histone acetylation, promoting a more open chromatin state that can reactivate silenced tumour suppressor genes
B) increase DNA methylation at oncogene promoters
C) permanently delete oncogenes from the genome
D) prevent all transcription in the cell
Question 26 (1 mark)
The Horvath epigenetic clock estimates an individual’s biological age by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) measuring telomere length exclusively
B) analysing DNA methylation levels at a defined set of CpG sites across the genome, which change in a predictable pattern with age
C) sequencing the entire genome for mutations
D) counting the number of cell divisions directly
Question 27 (1 mark)
When an individual’s epigenetic (biological) age, as measured by an epigenetic clock, is significantly higher than their chronological age, this is generally associated with:
✎ Circle your answer
A) a lower risk of age-related disease
B) no correlation with health outcomes
C) an increased risk of age-related disease and mortality, and is influenced by lifestyle factors such as smoking, obesity and chronic stress
D) a guaranteed increase in lifespan
Question 28 (1 mark)
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) regulate gene expression epigenetically by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) methylating histone tails directly
B) permanently altering the DNA sequence of target genes
C) acting as enzymes that acetylate DNA
D) binding complementary sequences on target mRNA molecules, leading to translational repression or mRNA degradation, thereby silencing gene expression post-transcriptionally
Question 29 (1 mark)
Compared with miRNAs, small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) typically:
✎ Circle your answer
A) bind with near-perfect complementarity to a single specific target mRNA, usually leading to its cleavage and degradation, whereas miRNAs often bind imperfectly to multiple mRNA targets
B) are transcribed only from mitochondrial DNA
C) function exclusively within the nucleus to methylate DNA
D) have no role in gene silencing
Question 30 (1 mark)
During mammalian gametogenesis and early embryogenesis, most epigenetic marks are:
✎ Circle your answer
A) permanently retained from the parental generation without change
B) erased and then re-established (epigenetic reprogramming), resetting the epigenome for normal development, except at imprinted loci
C) converted into DNA mutations
D) only removed from the Y chromosome
Question 31 (1 mark)
Imprinted genes are able to maintain parent-of-origin-specific expression through epigenetic reprogramming because:
✎ Circle your answer
A) they are located exclusively on the mitochondrial genome
B) they lack promoter regions entirely
C) they are protected from the genome-wide erasure of methylation marks that occurs in primordial germ cells and the early embryo
D) they undergo continuous random mutation
Question 32 (1 mark)
Bisulfite sequencing is a laboratory technique used to detect DNA methylation because it:
✎ Circle your answer
A) amplifies only methylated regions of the genome using PCR
B) directly visualises methyl groups using electron microscopy
C) cleaves DNA at every methylated cytosine
D) chemically converts unmethylated cytosine to uracil while leaving methylated cytosine unchanged, allowing methylation sites to be identified by comparing sequences before and after treatment
Question 33 (1 mark)
Chromatin immunoprecipitation followed by sequencing (ChIP-seq) is used to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) identify the genomic locations where specific proteins (e.g. modified histones or transcription factors) bind, by using antibodies to isolate protein-DNA complexes before sequencing the associated DNA
B) sequence the entire genome to detect single nucleotide mutations
C) measure the length of telomeres in a population of cells
D) directly measure gene expression levels via mRNA quantification
Question 34 (1 mark)
In studies of maternal care in rats (Meaney and colleagues), offspring of mothers displaying low licking/grooming behaviour showed:
✎ Circle your answer
A) decreased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor gene promoter and reduced stress reactivity
B) increased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor gene promoter in the hippocampus, reduced receptor expression, and heightened stress hormone responses in adulthood
C) no epigenetic changes at all
D) complete deletion of the glucocorticoid receptor gene
Question 35 (1 mark)
The mottled or mosaic coat pattern seen in some agouti mice reflects:
✎ Circle your answer
A) a mixture of maternal and paternal DNA sequences in different skin cells
B) random mutation occurring independently in each hair follicle
C) epigenetic mosaicism, where methylation at the Agouti retrotransposon is established stochastically and independently in different cell lineages during early development, then clonally maintained
D) seasonal changes in coat colour unrelated to methylation
Question 36 (1 mark)
One key molecular mechanism by which promoter methylation silences gene expression is that methylated cytosines:
✎ Circle your answer
A) increase the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter
B) are directly translated into altered amino acids
C) cause the gene to be relocated to a different chromosome
D) can physically block transcription factor binding sites and recruit methyl-binding proteins that further compact chromatin, preventing transcription initiation
Question 37 (1 mark)
CpG islands, which are regions of DNA with a high frequency of CG dinucleotides, are most commonly found:
✎ Circle your answer
A) in and around the promoter regions of approximately 60-70% of human genes, where their methylation status strongly influences gene expression
B) exclusively within intergenic heterochromatin with no functional role
C) only on the Y chromosome
D) within mitochondrial DNA exclusively
Question 38 (1 mark)
Histone methylation can either activate or repress transcription depending on the specific residue modified; for example:
✎ Circle your answer
A) H3K27me3 is associated with active transcription while H3K4me3 is always repressive
B) H3K4me3 (trimethylation of lysine 4 on histone H3) is generally associated with active gene promoters, while H3K27me3 is generally associated with transcriptional repression
C) all histone methylation marks have an identical effect on gene expression
D) histone methylation cannot be reversed once established
Question 39 (1 mark)
Polycomb repressive complexes contribute to epigenetic gene silencing during development by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) acetylating histone tails to open chromatin
B) removing methyl groups from DNA
C) depositing repressive histone marks such as H3K27me3, which help maintain genes (e.g. developmental regulator genes) in a stably silenced state
D) degrading the target gene’s mRNA
Question 40 (1 mark)
The gradual, stochastic accumulation of epigenetic changes across an individual’s lifetime, contributing to increasing epigenetic divergence between monozygotic twins and to age-related disease risk, is known as:
✎ Circle your answer
A) genomic imprinting
B) X-inactivation
C) transgenerational inheritance
D) epigenetic drift
SECTION B — EXTENDED RESPONSE (80 marks)
Question 1: DNA Methylation Mechanism
Question 41 (5 marks)
Question 1: DNA Methylation Mechanism
DNA methylation is a key epigenetic mechanism used to regulate gene expression in eukaryotic cells.
(i) Describe the chemical process of DNA methylation, including the enzyme involved and the base modified. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain how this modification can result in the silencing of gene expression, referring to transcription factor binding and chromatin structure. (3 marks)
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 2: Histone Modification and Chromatin Structure
Question 42 (4 marks)
Question 2: Histone Modification and Chromatin Structure (a)
Distinguish between euchromatin and heterochromatin in terms of structure, histone modification state and transcriptional activity.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 2: Histone Modification and Chromatin Structure
Question 43 (3 marks)
Question 2: Histone Modification and Chromatin Structure (b)
Explain, using the histone code hypothesis, how a combination of different histone modifications can determine whether a gene is expressed.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 2: Histone Modification and Chromatin Structure
Question 44 (3 marks)
Question 2: Histone Modification and Chromatin Structure (c)
A researcher treats cancer cells with an HDAC inhibitor. Predict and explain the effect this treatment would have on chromatin structure and the expression of previously silenced tumour suppressor genes.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study
Question 45 (3 marks)
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study (a)The agouti viable yellow (Avy) mouse is a well-studied model of epigenetic gene regulation. Genetically identical Avy mice display a range of coat colours from yellow through mottled to brown (pseudoagouti), which correlates with the degree of methylation of a retrotransposon (intracisternal A particle, IAP) inserted upstream of the Agouti gene. In one experiment, female mice were fed either a control diet or a diet supplemented with methyl donors (folate, vitamin B12, choline, betaine) prior to and during pregnancy. The table below summarises offspring coat colour distribution.
Diet | % Yellow | % Mottled | % Brown (pseudoagouti)
Control | 40% | 35% | 25%
Methyl-supplemented | 15% | 30% | 55%
Explain why offspring in this experiment are genetically identical but show a range of coat colours.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study
Question 46 (4 marks)
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study (b)
Using the data in the table, describe the effect of maternal methyl-donor supplementation on offspring coat colour, and explain the molecular basis for this effect.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study
Question 47 (3 marks)
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study (c)
A separate cohort of pregnant mice was exposed to BPA. Predict the effect this would have on the coat colour distribution of offspring compared with the control diet, and justify your prediction.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study
Question 48 (2 marks)
Question 3: Agouti Mouse Case Study (d)
Explain why this mouse model is considered strong evidence for epigenetic (rather than genetic) inheritance of a phenotype.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 4: Dutch Hunger Winter
Question 49 (4 marks)
Question 4: Dutch Hunger Winter (a)
The Dutch Hunger Winter (1944-45) occurred when a German blockade caused severe famine in parts of the Netherlands. Children conceived during this famine were later found, in adulthood, to have significantly different DNA methylation patterns at the IGF2 gene compared with their unexposed same-sex siblings, as well as increased rates of obesity, cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. Explain why comparing prenatally-exposed individuals with their unexposed siblings, rather than with unrelated individuals, strengthens the conclusion that the observed differences are due to epigenetic changes rather than genetic differences.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 4: Dutch Hunger Winter
Question 50 (4 marks)
Question 4: Dutch Hunger Winter (b)
Outline the concept of a ‘critical window’ of epigenetic susceptibility during development, and explain why prenatal exposure (rather than exposure later in life) had such a significant lasting effect.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 5: Twin Study of Epigenetic Divergence
Question 51 (3 marks)
Question 5: Twin Study of Epigenetic Divergence (a)
Fraga et al. (2005) studied pairs of monozygotic twins of varying ages and lifestyles, measuring global DNA methylation and histone acetylation levels in their cells. They found that younger twin pairs (and those with similar lifestyles who had spent more of their lives together) showed very similar epigenetic profiles, while older twin pairs (and those with more divergent lifestyles, e.g. differing smoking status, diet or exercise habits, who had spent less time living together) showed substantially different epigenetic profiles. Explain why monozygotic twins provide an ideal model for distinguishing the effects of environment from genotype on gene expression.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 5: Twin Study of Epigenetic Divergence
Question 52 (3 marks)
Question 5: Twin Study of Epigenetic Divergence (b)
Explain, with reference to environmental factors, why older twin pairs showed greater epigenetic divergence than younger twin pairs.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 5: Twin Study of Epigenetic Divergence
Question 53 (3 marks)
Question 5: Twin Study of Epigenetic Divergence (c)
A pair of monozygotic twins is discordant for a particular autoimmune disease (one twin is affected, the other is not). Using your understanding of epigenetics, explain how this could occur despite the twins having identical DNA sequences.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 6: Epigenetics in Cancer
Question 54 (4 marks)
Question 6: Epigenetics in Cancer (a)
Many cancers show characteristic epigenetic changes, including hypermethylation of specific tumour suppressor gene promoters (e.g. BRCA1, p16) alongside global hypomethylation of the rest of the genome. Explain how promoter hypermethylation of a tumour suppressor gene such as p16 could contribute to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 6: Epigenetics in Cancer
Question 55 (4 marks)
Question 6: Epigenetics in Cancer (b)
A new class of anti-cancer drugs combines a DNA methyltransferase inhibitor with a histone deacetylase inhibitor. Explain why this combination might be more effective at reactivating silenced tumour suppressor genes than either drug alone.
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Question 7: Genomic Imprinting
Question 56 (3 marks)
Question 7: Genomic Imprinting (a)
The chromosome 15q11-13 region contains genes subject to genomic imprinting. Genes in this region are expressed only from the paternal chromosome in some cases (e.g. genes deleted in Prader-Willi syndrome) and only from the maternal chromosome in others (e.g. UBE3A, deleted/silenced in Angelman syndrome). Explain what is meant by ‘genomic imprinting’ and describe how imprinting is established during gametogenesis.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 7: Genomic Imprinting
Question 57 (3 marks)
Question 7: Genomic Imprinting (b)
A child inherits a deletion of the 15q11-13 region on the chromosome received from their father. Using your knowledge of imprinting, explain why this child develops Prader-Willi syndrome rather than Angelman syndrome.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 7: Genomic Imprinting
Question 58 (2 marks)
Question 7: Genomic Imprinting (c)
Explain why genomic imprinting is considered an epigenetic, rather than genetic, phenomenon.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 8: The Epigenetic Clock
Question 59 (4 marks)
Question 8: The Epigenetic Clock (a)
The Horvath epigenetic clock estimates ‘biological age’ from DNA methylation levels at approximately 350 specific CpG sites across the genome. Researchers measured epigenetic age in two 50-year-old men, A and B. Person A had a smoking history of 30 years and a sedentary lifestyle; his epigenetic age was estimated at 58 years. Person B had never smoked and exercised regularly; his epigenetic age was estimated at 46 years. Using the data provided, explain what is meant by ‘epigenetic age acceleration’ and interpret the results for Person A and Person B.
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Question 8: The Epigenetic Clock
Question 60 (3 marks)
Question 8: The Epigenetic Clock (b)
Explain, in terms of underlying molecular mechanisms, how lifestyle factors such as smoking could lead to accelerated epigenetic ageing.
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Question 9: X-Inactivation
Question 61 (3 marks)
Question 9: X-Inactivation (a)
Explain the process of random X-chromosome inactivation in female mammals, including the role of the Xist gene and the formation of the Barr body.
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Question 9: X-Inactivation
Question 62 (3 marks)
Question 9: X-Inactivation (b)
Female mammals heterozygous for an X-linked gene (e.g. for coat colour, as in calico cats) often display a mosaic/patchy phenotype. Explain why this occurs, using your understanding of X-inactivation.
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Question 10: Non-Coding RNA and Gene Silencing
Question 63 (4 marks)
Question 10: Non-Coding RNA and Gene Silencing (a)
Compare the mechanisms of gene silencing used by microRNA (miRNA) and small interfering RNA (siRNA), and explain how each contributes to the regulation of gene expression.
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Question 10: Non-Coding RNA and Gene Silencing
Question 64 (3 marks)
Question 10: Non-Coding RNA and Gene Silencing (b)
A researcher wants to experimentally ‘knock down’ expression of a specific gene in cultured human cells to study its function. Explain how synthetic siRNA could be used to achieve this, and outline one limitation of this approach.
✎ Write your answer on paper
✓ Finished? Open the next lesson — Model Answers — to mark your work.