Mock Exam 4
VCE Biology Units 3 & 4 | Cell Signalling, Biotechnology and Biological Knowledge in Society
✎ 120 marks total • approximately 150 minutes. Complete ALL questions on paper before opening the Model Answers lesson. Reading time: 15 minutes (recommended). No notes.
SECTION A — MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 marks)
Question 1 (1 mark)
A signal molecule that cannot cross the plasma membrane (e.g. a peptide hormone) must act via:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Direct binding to DNA in the nucleus
B) A cell surface receptor, triggering an intracellular second messenger cascade
C) Passive diffusion through nuclear pores
D) An intracellular receptor
Question 2 (1 mark)
Cyclic AMP (cAMP) functions in cell signalling as:
✎ Circle your answer
A) A second messenger that relays and amplifies a signal within the cell
B) A first messenger (hormone) released from an endocrine gland
C) A gene promoter sequence
D) A cell surface receptor protein
Question 3 (1 mark)
Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that apoptosis is:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Always harmful to the organism as a whole
B) Caused by acute physical or chemical damage to the cell
C) Characterised by cell swelling and membrane rupture
D) A programmed, controlled form of cell death that does not trigger inflammation
Question 4 (1 mark)
Which of the following is a steroid (lipid-soluble) hormone that can diffuse into cells and bind an intracellular receptor?
✎ Circle your answer
A) Insulin
B) Oestrogen
C) Adrenaline
D) Glucagon
Question 5 (1 mark)
In signal transduction pathways, the general role of protein kinases is to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Phosphorylate target proteins, typically altering their activity or conformation
B) Bind the extracellular signal molecule directly
C) Break down and inactivate the original signal molecule
D) Synthesise cAMP from ATP
Question 6 (1 mark)
In recombinant DNA technology, restriction enzymes (restriction endonucleases) are used to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Join two DNA fragments together permanently
B) Determine the base sequence of a DNA fragment
C) Cut DNA molecules at specific, short recognition sequences
D) Amplify a target DNA sequence exponentially
Question 7 (1 mark)
In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated according to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Their electrical charge only, independent of size
B) The three-dimensional shape of the DNA molecule
C) Their size, with smaller fragments migrating further through the gel
D) Their base composition (proportion of G+C)
Question 8 (1 mark)
Stem cells are characterised by their ability to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Differentiate into only one specific, predetermined cell type
B) Self-renew (divide to produce more stem cells) and differentiate into one or more specialised cell types
C) Only ever form blood cells
D) Never undergo cell division
Question 9 (1 mark)
Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are produced by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Somatic cell nuclear transfer cloning
B) Transplanting bone marrow into a patient
C) Reprogramming differentiated adult (somatic) cells using specific transcription factors (e.g. Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, c-Myc)
D) Extracting cells directly from an early embryo
Question 10 (1 mark)
In DNA profiling, short tandem repeats (STRs) are useful markers because:
✎ Circle your answer
A) They can be seen directly under a light microscope
B) They are identical in all humans, providing a stable reference
C) The number of repeat units at each STR locus varies considerably between individuals, producing a highly distinctive profile
D) They code for essential structural proteins
Question 11 (1 mark)
Gene therapy is a technique that involves:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Removing all genetic material from a target cell
B) Deliberately using a virus to cause disease in a patient
C) Introducing a functional copy of a gene to compensate for or correct a disease-causing mutation
D) Producing cloned copies of a patient’s organs
Question 12 (1 mark)
A recombinant protein such as human insulin is typically produced by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Extracting and purifying it directly from human pancreatic tissue
B) Inserting the human gene for the protein into a host organism (e.g. E. coli), which then expresses and produces the protein
C) Chemically synthesising the entire protein from individual amino acids
D) Isolating the protein from genetically unmodified plant cells
Question 13 (1 mark)
The release of oxytocin during labour, which stimulates uterine contractions that in turn stimulate further oxytocin release, is an example of:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Negative feedback
B) Homeostasis
C) Positive feedback, where a response reinforces and amplifies the original stimulus until a specific endpoint is reached
D) Hormonal antagonism
Question 14 (1 mark)
Negative feedback in thermoregulation means that:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Body temperature only ever increases over time
B) A deviation from the temperature setpoint triggers a response that reverses the deviation, restoring the setpoint
C) Only cooling mechanisms exist in the human thermoregulatory system
D) Body temperature is inherently unstable and fluctuates constantly
Question 15 (1 mark)
Transgenesis refers to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) The deliberate introduction of a gene (or genes) from one species into the genome of a different species
B) The silencing of an endogenous gene without inserting new DNA
C) The cloning of an entire organism
D) A spontaneous mutation arising within a single species
Question 16 (1 mark)
The purpose of a vector (e.g. a plasmid) in recombinant DNA technology is to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Cut the target DNA into fragments
B) Break down and destroy any foreign DNA present in the host
C) Carry foreign DNA into a host cell and enable its replication and/or expression
D) Determine the nucleotide sequence of the DNA
Question 17 (1 mark)
Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with genetically modified (GM) crops?
✎ Circle your answer
A) Traits such as herbicide tolerance, pest resistance, or improved nutritional content (e.g. Golden Rice) can be introduced
B) GM crops require no ethical or regulatory consideration
C) GM crops always increase local biodiversity
D) GM crops and their products can never enter the human food chain
Question 18 (1 mark)
Bioethics, as applied to biotechnology, involves:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Government regulation exclusively, with no ethical dimension
B) The application of ethical principles and reasoning to biological research and its practical applications
C) The biological basis of moral behaviour in animals
D) Only the technical study of genetics
Question 19 (1 mark)
In CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing, the double-strand break created by the Cas9 enzyme is typically repaired by one of two cellular pathways:
✎ Circle your answer
A) DNA methylation
B) Restriction enzyme digestion
C) RNA polymerase-mediated repair
D) Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) or homology-directed repair (HDR)
Question 20 (1 mark)
Which of the following is a recognised risk associated with using viral vectors in gene therapy?
✎ Circle your answer
A) Viral vectors are guaranteed to cause cancer in every patient
B) The patient’s immune system may respond to the vector, and there is a risk of insertional mutagenesis if the vector inserts near an oncogene
C) Viral vectors are physically unable to carry any therapeutic gene
D) The therapeutic gene is always too large to fit inside any viral vector
Question 21 (1 mark)
Which type of cell signalling involves a signal molecule acting on the very cell that secreted it?
✎ Circle your answer
A) Autocrine signalling
B) Endocrine signalling
C) Paracrine signalling
D) Juxtacrine (contact-dependent) signalling
Question 22 (1 mark)
Paracrine signalling is best described as:
✎ Circle your answer
A) A hormone travelling through the bloodstream to act on distant target cells
B) A cell responding to a signal molecule it secreted itself
C) A signal molecule diffusing a short distance through the extracellular fluid to act on nearby cells
D) Direct communication between adjacent cells via membrane-bound proteins requiring physical contact
Question 23 (1 mark)
Ligand-gated ion channel receptors respond to ligand binding by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Activating an associated G-protein inside the cell
B) Acting directly as a transcription factor in the nucleus
C) Phosphorylating cytoplasmic target proteins
D) Changing conformation to directly open or close a channel, allowing specific ions to flow across the membrane and change membrane potential
Question 24 (1 mark)
Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), such as the insulin receptor, are activated when ligand binding causes:
✎ Circle your answer
A) The ligand to diffuse across the plasma membrane
B) The receptor to act directly as a transcription factor by binding DNA
C) Receptor dimerisation and cross-autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues on the cytoplasmic domains
D) Activation of an associated trimeric G-protein
Question 25 (1 mark)
Which second messenger is generated by the enzyme phospholipase C and functions to trigger the release of calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum?
✎ Circle your answer
A) Nitric oxide (NO)
B) Cyclic GMP (cGMP)
C) Cyclic AMP (cAMP)
D) Inositol trisphosphate (IP3)
Question 26 (1 mark)
In PCR (the polymerase chain reaction), the DNA polymerase commonly used is heat-stable because it is derived from:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Human cells
B) Escherichia coli
C) Baker’s yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)
D) Thermus aquaticus, a bacterium that lives in hot springs
Question 27 (1 mark)
The three repeating steps of a standard PCR cycle are, in order:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Ligation, transformation, selection
B) Denaturation, annealing, extension
C) Transcription, translation, replication
D) Restriction digestion, electrophoresis, sequencing
Question 28 (1 mark)
In CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing, the short single guide RNA (sgRNA) functions to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Repair the double-strand break created by Cas9
B) Provide the energy required for the cutting reaction
C) Directly cut the target DNA without requiring any protein
D) Guide the Cas9 enzyme to bind a specific, complementary target DNA sequence
Question 29 (1 mark)
A PAM (protospacer adjacent motif) sequence is required for CRISPR-Cas9 editing because:
✎ Circle your answer
A) It functions as an antibiotic resistance marker for selection
B) Cas9 will only cut DNA that lies immediately adjacent to this short specific sequence, which helps ensure the correct target site is cut
C) It encodes the guide RNA sequence itself
D) It is the site where the guide RNA is first synthesised
Question 30 (1 mark)
Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT), the technique used to produce Dolly the sheep, involves:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Removing the nucleus from an unfertilised egg cell and replacing it with the nucleus taken from a differentiated somatic (body) cell
B) Injecting a single gene of interest directly into a fertilised egg
C) Fusing two sperm cells together
D) Randomly inducing mutations in embryonic cells
Question 31 (1 mark)
Reproductive cloning differs from therapeutic cloning in that reproductive cloning:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Only ever produces embryonic stem cells for laboratory research
B) Aims to produce a whole, live-born organism genetically identical to the donor, whereas therapeutic cloning aims to produce embryonic stem cells for treating disease, without implanting an embryo to develop into an organism
C) Is legal in every country without restriction
D) Does not involve somatic cell nuclear transfer
Question 32 (1 mark)
The 1975 Asilomar Conference is historically significant in the field of biotechnology because it:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Established the first commercial patent for a genetically modified organism
B) Permanently banned all future genetic engineering research
C) Approved the first human gene therapy clinical trial
D) Brought together scientists to voluntarily discuss and develop safety guidelines for early recombinant DNA research
Question 33 (1 mark)
In Australia, genetically modified organisms (GMOs) proposed for release into the environment are primarily regulated by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) The Office of the Gene Technology Regulator (OGTR)
B) Food Standards Australia New Zealand (FSANZ) alone
C) The Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
D) Individual state police departments
Question 34 (1 mark)
The eugenics movement of the early-to-mid 20th century is widely condemned today primarily because it:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Applied a scientifically flawed and oversimplified understanding of heredity to justify coercive practices (such as forced sterilisation) that discriminated against particular social, ethnic and disability groups
B) Had no relationship to genetics whatsoever
C) Only ever affected agricultural plant breeding programs
D) Was based entirely on modern CRISPR gene-editing technology
Question 35 (1 mark)
Golden Rice is a genetically modified crop that has been engineered to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Grow without any water requirement
B) Produce human insulin in its grains
C) Be completely resistant to all insect pests
D) Produce beta-carotene (a precursor of vitamin A) in the rice grain, to help address vitamin A deficiency in populations reliant on rice as a staple food
Question 36 (1 mark)
A key public concern raised in ethical debates about germline gene editing (editing embryos or gametes, as opposed to somatic cells) is that:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Germline and somatic gene editing carry identical risk profiles and ethical implications
B) Germline editing is currently routine, uncontroversial clinical practice worldwide
C) Because the changes are heritable and passed on to all offspring of the edited individual, there are concerns about unintended long-term consequences and the potential for non-therapeutic ‘designer baby’ applications
D) Germline changes have no effect on any future generations
Question 37 (1 mark)
Western blotting is a laboratory technique used to:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Separate whole chromosomes for karyotyping
B) Amplify a specific target DNA sequence exponentially
C) Determine the nucleotide sequence of an RNA molecule
D) Separate a mixture of proteins by size and then detect a specific protein of interest using labelled antibodies
Question 38 (1 mark)
ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) tests, used in various diagnostic settings, work by:
✎ Circle your answer
A) Using specific antibody-antigen binding coupled to an enzyme that produces a measurable colour change, indicating the presence of a target antigen or antibody
B) Amplifying viral RNA using a heat-stable polymerase
C) Cutting DNA at specific recognition sequences
D) Separating DNA fragments according to size using an electric field
Question 39 (1 mark)
Pharmacogenomics is the study of:
✎ Circle your answer
A) How an individual’s genetic makeup influences their response to particular drugs, with the goal of enabling more personalised, effective and safer medicine
B) The regulatory history of drug approval processes
C) The evolutionary history of pharmaceutical companies
D) The genome of plants used solely in pharmaceutical crop production
Question 40 (1 mark)
A key biosafety consideration when a genetically modified organism is proposed for release into the environment is:
✎ Circle your answer
A) The manufacturing cost of producing the organism
B) The patent status of the inserted gene
C) The marketing strategy used to sell products derived from the organism
D) The potential for gene flow to wild relative species and other unintended ecological effects, which must be assessed through a formal risk assessment before approval
SECTION B — EXTENDED RESPONSE (80 marks)
Question 41 (4 marks)
Describe a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) signalling pathway. Include the steps from signal molecule binding to cellular response.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 42 (4 marks)
Explain the intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathway of apoptosis.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 43 (4 marks)
Describe the steps involved in producing recombinant human insulin using E. coli.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 44 (4 marks)
Explain the principle behind DNA profiling (STR analysis) and describe two applications.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 45 (4 marks)
Discuss the ethical issues surrounding human embryonic stem cell research.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 46 (4 marks)
Compare CRISPR-Cas9 and traditional transgenic techniques for genetic modification. Include advantages of CRISPR.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 47 (4 marks)
Explain what homeostasis is, using body temperature regulation as an example of negative feedback.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 48 (4 marks)
Describe the role of monoclonal antibodies in medical diagnosis and treatment. Give one example of each use.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 49 (5 marks)
<strong>Extended Response 1: Signal Transduction and Cell Response (a)</strong><br>Compare the signalling pathways of lipid-soluble hormones (e.g. oestrogen) and water-soluble hormones (e.g. insulin). Include the receptor location, second messenger (if any) and cellular response.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 50 (3 marks)
<strong>Extended Response 1: Signal Transduction and Cell Response (b)</strong><br>Explain how signal amplification occurs in cell signalling cascades.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 51 (4 marks)
<strong>Extended Response 2: Biotechnology and Society (a)</strong><br>Describe the potential applications and ethical concerns associated with gene therapy for treating genetic diseases.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Question 52 (3 marks)
<strong>Extended Response 2: Biotechnology and Society (b)</strong><br>Evaluate the risks and benefits of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in agriculture.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease
Question 53 (4 marks)
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease (a)
Casgevy (exagamglogene autotemcel) is a CRISPR-Cas9-based gene-editing therapy approved in the United States and United Kingdom for sickle cell disease. Haematopoietic (blood) stem cells are collected from the patient’s own blood, and CRISPR-Cas9 is used ex vivo (outside the body) to edit a regulatory region (enhancer) of the BCL11A gene in these cells, before they are reinfused into the patient. Describe the molecular mechanism by which this editing reduces the symptoms of sickle cell disease, referring to the roles of BCL11A, fetal haemoglobin and adult (sickle) haemoglobin.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease
Question 54 (4 marks)
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease (b)
Explain why this therapy is classified as somatic (ex vivo) gene therapy rather than germline gene therapy, and outline one key scientific or ethical distinction between these two approaches.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease
Question 55 (5 marks)
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease (c)In a hypothetical clinical trial, patients with severe sickle cell disease were followed for 12 months after receiving either the CRISPR-based therapy or standard care (blood transfusions and pain management). The table below shows the percentage of patients who were free of vaso-occlusive crises during this period.
Group | Number of patients | % free of vaso-occlusive crises at 12 months
CRISPR therapy | 30 | 90%
Standard care (control) | 30 | 20%
Describe the trend shown by this data, and identify one limitation of this hypothetical study design.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease
Question 56 (4 marks)
Extended Response 3: CRISPR Gene Editing Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease (d)
Discuss two considerations relevant to the regulation and equitable access to this type of gene-editing therapy in society.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer
Question 57 (4 marks)
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer (a)
Describe the normal receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) signal transduction pathway that regulates cell division, from ligand binding at the cell surface to the activation of genes controlling the cell cycle.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer
Question 58 (4 marks)
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer (b)
Explain how a mutation in the RAS gene (producing a constitutively active Ras protein) can contribute to the uncontrolled cell proliferation seen in cancer.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer
Question 59 (4 marks)
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer (c)In a laboratory study, cancer cells with an activating RAS mutation were cultured with or without a targeted RTK-pathway inhibitor drug. The table below shows the relative number of viable cancer cells (as a percentage of the starting number) over 96 hours.
Time (hours) | Untreated cells (%) | Cells + inhibitor drug (%)
0 | 100 | 100
24 | 150 | 105
48 | 230 | 100
72 | 350 | 90
96 | 520 | 75
Describe the effect of the inhibitor drug shown by this data, including a calculation of the percentage change in cell number for each group between 0 and 96 hours.
✎ Write your answer on paper
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer
Question 60 (4 marks)
Extended Response 4: Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Signalling and Cancer (d)
Explain why targeted therapies that block a specific overactive signalling protein (such as an RTK inhibitor) may cause fewer side effects than traditional non-specific chemotherapy, and discuss one limitation of this type of targeted therapy.
✎ Write your answer on paper
✓ Finished? Open the next lesson — Model Answers — to mark your work.